Pre-Existence and Birth of Jesus

by Wayne Jackson

 ( used with permission from: Spirtual Sword, 1970, Vol 1(1):1-4 )

Almost 2,000 years ago, a babe was born in Bethlehem of Judea. He was named Jesus. The world has not been the same since. Opinions regarding this renowned Jew have been both diverse and numerous. The characteristic concept of modernism is that Jesus Christ was but a man - a good and wise man, but still, only a man. The late James A. Pike once suggested that Jesus was just a country carpenter with clerical aspirations differing from other men only in degree, not in kind. 

Near the end of His ministry, the Lord asked the Pharisees, "What think ye of the Christ? Whose Son is he?" (Matt. 22:42). They replied, "The Son of David." He then confounded them by quoting Psalm 110:1, where David exclaimed, "The Lord said unto my Lord..." He asked how the promised Messiah could be both David's Lord and his son. They were silent. The answer, of course, lies in the dual nature of Christ. As an eternal Divine Being, He was David's Lord; as a man, He was the seed of David. (Rom. 1:3). Jesus was God and He was man. Two natures were in one Person, fused, but not confused! 

Any proper study of Jesus Christ must include not only His earthly span of some 33 years, but His eternal existence as well. The Bible plainly teaches that the Savior had an eternal existence prior to His earthly incarnation. 

In the Old Testament Micah had prophesied that the Son of God would be born in Bethlehem. Yet it is carefully emphasized that this is not to be construed as the beginning of His existence, for His "goings forth are from of old, from days of eternity." (Mic. 5:2). 

Jesus Christ, as the Second Person of the Godhead, had no origin. In fact, He was the Originator of all things. (Col. 1:16; Rev. 3:14). He was not, as the ancient Gnostics taught, a mere created god or angelic being (a view also held by modern cultists, the "Jehovah's Witnesses"), rather, He was eternal Deity. The gospel account according to John begins with this exalted theme. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." (John 1:1). The Word (logos) is here identified as a Person. "All things were made through him..." Specifically, it was He who became flesh and dwelt among men as the Son of God. (John 1:14). 

There is an interesting contrast between the eternalexistence of the LOGOS and the incarnatesojourn of the Son of God. "In the beginning was (a verb of continual timeless existence) the Word." Yet, "the Word became (a verb denoting the commencement of His human existence in time) flesh." In similar fashion, Christ Himself said, "Before Abraham wasborn (definite origin), I am (always existing)." (John 8:58). Thus, the LOGOS had a pre-human, timeless existence. 

The term logos itself, makes for an interesting study. It was a familiar term among the Greek philosophers. "God was thought of as infinitely perfect and holy. How could such a glorious Being communicate with imperfect humanity? Was there any means of spanning the chasm between the Perfect and the imperfect, between the Infinite and the finite? There must be a bridge whereby God could communicate with man, the Greeks reasoned, and this mystical bridge they termed the logos because it is by means of language that thoughts are expressed in intercourse between human minds. John applies the idea to Christ. He says there is a bridge between God and man, and that bridge is the Jesus of history."¹ Thus, John affirms that Jesus "declared" God to man. (John 1:18). He was the "articulation of the invisible God," the perfect exegesis of the Father. No wonder He could say, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father." (John 14:9). 

The Master asserted His heavenly origin when in debate with the Jews He said, "Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world." (John 8:23). And shortly before His death, He could pray, "Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." (John 17:5). Truly, He was that "living bread which came down out of heaven" to nourish a starving humanity. (John 6:51). 

By the Spirit, Paul was led to write concerning Christ, "though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor..." (II Cor. 8:9). If Jesus did not pre-exist in grandeur and glory before His birth, when was He rich? Certainly not while on earth! He was born in a borrowed stable, rowed the Sea of Galilee in a borrowed boat, fed the multitudes with borrowed food, rode into Jerusalem on a borrowed beast, ate His last meal in a borrowed room and finally was buried in a borrowed tomb. He once announced, "The foxes have holes, and the birds of the heaven have nests; but the Son of man hath not where to lay his head." (Luke 9:58). He was rich in eternal glory, but He became poor when He wrapped Himself in humanity. Of this passage J.H. Bernard wrote, "There is nowhere in St. Paul a more definite statement of his belief in the pre-existence of Christ before His Incarnation."² Paul elaborates further on the pre-existence of Christ in Phil. 2:5ff. "Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men; and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient unto death, yea, the death of the cross. Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name..." The apostle acknowledges that the Lord "pre-existed in the form of God, yet He did not look upon equality with God as a prize which must not slip from His grasp, but He emptied Himself, divested Himself, taking upon Him the form of a slave."³ This does not mean that as the Son of man He was less than Divine. His self-emptying was an act of His sovereignty and in no way involved a forfeiture of His intrinsic Deity. 

In this context, with one majestic sweep of his pen, Paul embraces Christ's
 

1. Pre-existence (equality with God),
    
2. Incarnation (made in the likeness of men),
    
3. Coronation (God highly exalted Him).

Similarly, the Hebrew writer notes:
 

1. He made the worlds-indicating His pre-existence.
    
2. He made purification of sins- having been sent in the  likeness of sinful flesh and for sin (Rom. 8:3)-this  involves the incarnation.
    
3. He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high.  (Heb. 1:2,3). Any view which fails to include the Divine  pre-existence of Mary's Son is certainly erroneous.

Jesus' Birth 

Jesus' entry into the world was miraculous. He was conceived of the Holy Spirit and born of the Virgin Mary. Some 700 years before, Isaiah in addressing the "house of David" had proclaimed, "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." (Isa. 7:14). The term "sign" as well as the word "virgin" indicated a miraculous event. There has been much needless argument concerning the meaning of "virgin" (Heb. almah). Some have suggested that the thrust of the word is simply "young woman." (Cf. RSV). The matter is settled, however, by the apostle Matthew who states that Mary "was found with child of the Holy Spirit" before she and Joseph "came together." (Matt. 1:18). He further declares that this is but a fulfillment of Isaiah's prophecy. He cites Isa. 7:14, using his own inspiredtranslation, which is neither from the Hebrew text or the Septuagint in verbatim form. He uses the term parthenos, unquestionably a virgin! If he misrepresented Isaiah's original thought, the indictment must be against the Holy Spirit who guided him in the selection of the word. Incidentally, the New English Bible renders the phrase "before they came together" (Mt 1:18), as "before their marriage." This is entirely misleading and raises suspicion regarding the translators. It smacks of modernism. Many young girls are found with child "before marriage." None of them, though, can affirm, "I have never been intimate with a man." (Cf. Lk. 1:34). 

In listing the "legal" genealogy of Christ from Abraham to Joseph, Matthew used the term "begat" no less than 39 times. Yet, when he came to Jesus, the word is conspicuously dropped form his vocabulary. He simply says, "...Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called the Christ." (Matt. 1:16). This is a carefully worded testimony to the virgin birth. Luke also, in a guarded statement, notes that Jesus was the son "as was supposed" of Joseph. (Luke 3:23). 

It is clearly revealed that the Savior was born of woman (Gal 4:4), but it is nowhere even hinted that He was begotten of man. John describes Him as the "only begotten" Son of God. (Jn. 3:16). The expression "only begotten" implies a uniqueness, a "one-of-a-kind" Son. Jesus was the Son of God in a way that no other ever was. He established this when He said, "My Father (not "our Father," but claiming special relationship) worketh even until now, and I work." And John significantly remarks, "For this cause therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only brake the sabbath but also called God his own (in a sense not true of others) Father, making himself equal with God," (John 5:17,18). 

On trial before the high priest, Jesus was asked, "Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? And Jesus said, I am..." (Mark 14:61,62). Because of His confession that He was the Son of God, Christ was judged worthy of death. The issue is clear. If Jesus was not the Son of God in a unique way, He was guilty of blasphemy and thus deserving of death according to Old Testament law. (Lev. 24:16). It therefore would seem that a denial of the virgin birth of Christ is an affirmation that His death was just! 

Furthermore, if Jesus was not virgin-born, Mary "becomes the most despicable parody on womanhood that degrades the pages of history."⁴ She stood at the foot of the cross (John 19:26), and watched the agony of her Son, whose suffering was due to His claim of being God's Son. Why did not she rush forth and reveal His true father and thus, save her Son? Obviously she knew His claim was factual, He had no earthly father!

Conclusion 

It is utterly impossible for the Christian to fathom the inexhaustible love that prompted Eternal Deity to clothe Himself with lowly humanity, and all for the sake of wretched man. We can only say with Paul, "Thanks be to God for his unspeakable gift." (II Cor. 9:15).

1. Boyce W. Blackwelder Light From the Greek New  Testament, (Anderson, Ind.: Warner Press, 1959), p.  41 
2. J.H. Bernard, The Expositor's Greek Testament, Volume 3(Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1956), p. 87.  
3. J.B. Lightfoot, Saint Paul's Epistle to the  Philippians, (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1953), p. 111.   
4. Harry Rimmer, The Magnificence of Jesus, (Grand  Rapids: Eerdmans. 1943), p. 121.
    

Questions for Your Study
 

1. Show how Jesus was able to be both David's Lord and his  son. 
2. Distinguish between Christ's eternal existence and  His incarnate sojourn. 
3. Explain the significance of the word logos when it  is applied to Jesus. 
4. Christ said, "He that hath seen Me hath seen the  Father." What was Hs meaning? 
5. Show that Paul clearly believed in and taught the  pre-fleshly existence of Christ.  
6. What is the modernist's view of Isaiah 7:14? 
7. How may we be sure of the correct meaning of Isaiah  7:14? 
8. Show how various New Testament writers present the fact  of the virgin birth. 
9. In what way was Jesus God's "one-of-a-kind"  Son? Are Christians the children of God in the same sense  that Jesus was? 
10. In what light must we view Mary if Jesus was not  virgin-born?

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